Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?
A) Yes, because the number of viruses that infect 50% of a test population should also kill 50% of that test population.
B) No, because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID50 value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD50 value), for example the rhinovirus (common cold virus).
C) No, because very few viruses are lethal, yet many are highly infectious. The two values should ALWAYS be different.
D) Yes, because what we're actually describing here is the infection/ killing of individual cells, not of entire organisms. If a cell is infected, it will always be killed.
E) Yes, because ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ are actually measurements of the same thing: effectiveness of a virus in entering and damaging a host cell.

Question

Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?
A) Yes, because the number of viruses that infect 50% of a test population should also kill 50% of that test population.
B) No, because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID50 value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD50 value), for example the rhinovirus (common cold virus).
C) No, because very few viruses are lethal, yet many are highly infectious. The two values should ALWAYS be different.
D) Yes, because what we're actually describing here is the infection/ killing of individual cells, not of entire organisms. If a cell is infected, it will always be killed.
E) Yes, because ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ are actually measurements of the same thing: effectiveness of a virus in entering and damaging a host cell.

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

ID50 and LD50 are not directly correlated. A virus can be highly infectious (low ID50) but not lethal (high LD50), such as the rhinovirus that causes the common cold. Therefore, ID50 and LD50 may not be the same for a given virus.

Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ Necessarily Be the Same for a Given