What is the most likely explanation for a set of unaffected parents having two children with a highly-penetrant, autosomal dominant disorder?
A) Two new mutations occurred in the same gene
B) Germline mosaicism in one of the parents
C) Variable expressivity
D) Somatic reversion in carrier parent
E) Inactivation of mutant allele in carrier parent
Correct Answer:
Verified
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A) More mutated
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A) Difficulty in making
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