Which of the following explains why rates of premarital sex may be declining in recent years?
A)Prevalence of sexually transmitted diseases (e.g., AIDS) only
B)Cultural emphasis on deeper relationships only
C)Both the prevalence of sexually transmitted diseases (e.g., AIDS) and the cultural emphasis on deeper relationships
D)Reduction of sex scenes in movies and television only

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The decline in rates of premarital sex can be attributed to both the increased awareness and fear of sexually transmitted diseases, such as AIDS, and a cultural shift towards valuing deeper, more meaningful relationships over casual encounters. These factors together influence individuals' decisions regarding sexual activity.

Which of the Following Explains Why Rates of Premarital Sex