A physician orders a computed tomographic scan for a 42-year-old man after he is admitted to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting, and a headache that has progressively worsened throughout the day. A hemorrhagic lesion is revealed in the superior half of the cerebellum. Which of the following blood vessels primarily supplies this area of the cerebellum?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The superior cerebellar artery primarily supplies the superior half of the cerebellum, which is the area affected in the scenario described.

A Physician Orders a Computed Tomographic Scan for a 42-Year-Old