A 68-year-old man presents with a 1 * 2 cm macular red lesion of his hard palate. This is asymptomatic, has been present for an unknown duration, and does not blanch with compression. The best clinical designation for this lesion would be:
A) Vascular malformation
B) Erythroplakia
C) Leukoplakia
D) Chronic ulcer
E) Verrucal-papillary lesion
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q4: Blood dyscrasias (diseases) may manifest themselves orally
Q5: Examination reveals an asymptomatic 1 * 1
Q6: Kaposi's sarcoma:
A) Is associated with HHV8
B) Occurs
Q7: It is generally believed that Kaposi's sarcoma
Q8: A focal proliferative gingival mass composed of
Q10: HIV-associated Kaposi's sarcoma:
A) Is typically seen in
Q11: Mental retardation, seizures, and vascular malformation of
Q12: Biopsy of a purple mass in the
Q13: Trauma or irritation is believed to be
Q14: Burning mouth or burning tongue syndrome:
A) May
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents