A client has a brain abscess and is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) .The spouse questions the use of the drug,saying the client does not have a seizure disorder.What response by the nurse is best?
A) "Increased pressure from the abscess can cause seizures."
B) "Preventing febrile seizures with an abscess is important."
C) "Seizures always occur in clients with brain abscesses."
D) "This drug is used to sedate the client with an abscess."
Correct Answer:
Verified
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