A 26-year-old client with multiple sexual partners is being assessed for symptoms of dysuria and vaginal discharge.Because the results from the culture of the cervical cells are not available,the client will be treated for both Chlamydia and gonorrhea.Which explanation by the nurse is best?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Both gonorrhea and Chlamydia can cause pelvic inflammatory disease and scarring of the fallopian tubes,resulting in infertility problems.Azithromycin is the treatment of choice for both sexually transmitted diseases,but ceftriaxone (Rocephin)is also recommended for treatment of gonorrhea.Aortic valve disease and aneurysms usually occur with tertiary syphilis.Meningitis occurs rarely with a gonorrhea infection and is usually treated with intravenous antibiotic therapy in the hospital setting.

A 26-Year-Old Client with Multiple Sexual Partners Is Being Assessed