__________ has been defined as the unlawful use of force or violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce government, a civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The Answer of __________ has been defined as the unlawful use of force or violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce government, a civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives.

__________ Has Been Defined as the Unlawful Use of Force