A 60-year-old man who is receiving warfarin for recurrent deep vein thrombosis and has had stable, therapeutically appropriate anticoagulation for several months is treated by his physician for a urinary tract infection. Twelve days later he presents to the emergency department with lower gastrointestinal bleeding and is found to have a markedly prolonged prothrombin time. What is the most likely cause?
A) Thrombin inhibition by a fluoroquinolone antibiotic
B) Reduced production of vitamin K by gut flora
C) Direct activation of plasminogen by a cephalosporin
D) Antibiotic inhibition of VKOR c1
E) Inhibition of platelet function by a beta-lactamase
Correct Answer:
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