Why would it be correct to say that, if we assume that people do not change their currency holdings and that banks do not hold any excess reserves, the equation $ \Delta D=\frac{1}{r_{D}} \Delta R R $ really could be stated as $ \Delta M 1=\frac{1}{r_{D}} \Delta R R $ ?

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The Answer of Why would it be correct to say that, if we assume that people do not change their currency holdings and that banks do not hold any excess reserves, the equation $ \Delta D=\frac{1}{r_{D}} \Delta R R $ really could be stated as $ \Delta M 1=\frac{1}{r_{D}} \Delta R R $ ?

Why Would It Be Correct to Say That, If We ΔD=1rDΔRR \Delta D=\frac{1}{r_{D}} \Delta R R ΔD=rD​1​ΔRR

Why Would It Be Correct to Say That, If We $\Delta D=\frac{1}{r_{D}} \Delta R R$