Why is the traditional description of Europe from 300 to 1200 as "feudal" an oversimplification?

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The term "feudalism" is often used to describe the social, economic, and political structure of medieval Europe, but its application as a universal model is an oversimplification because the relationships between lords and serfs, as well as the organization of land and power, varied significantly across different regions. This variability means that a single term cannot accurately capture the complexity of medieval European society.

Why Is the Traditional Description of Europe from 300 to 1200