A 46-year-old male patient is 2 days post-op for surgery to repair an aortic aneurysm.He is currently receiving mechanical ventilation.Auscultation of the anterior and posterior chest reveals bilateral late inspiratory crackles.Percussion is dull in both lower lobes.A STAT radiograph reveals bibasilar infiltrates.The most likely cause of this patient's clinical presentation is which of the following?
A) Asthma
B) Pneumonia
C) Pneumothorax
D) Pleural effusion
Correct Answer:
Verified
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