A 16-year-old woman comes to the office due to malodorous vaginal discharge. The patient arrives with her mother, who stays in the examination room for the evaluation. The patient has had increased vaginal discharge for the past 2 days but no abnormal vaginal bleeding or abdominal or pelvic pain. She is sexually active with a new partner and uses a progestin-releasing subdermal implant for contraception. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. Vital signs are normal. The patient appears anxious. Abdominal examination shows no tenderness or palpable masses. When the pelvic examination is attempted, the patient says that she is "embarrassed and anxious" and refuses the examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
A) Administer a benzodiazepine and proceed with the examination
B) Ask the patient's mother to leave the room and proceed with the examination
C) Distract the patient with questions while performing the examination
D) Do not perform the examination and ask the patient if she will perform self-collection for testing
E) Obtain permission from the patient's mother to proceed with the examination
Correct Answer:
Verified
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