A 28-year-old woman comes to the office for a regularly scheduled prenatal appointment. Her pregnancy has been going well and the patient says that she is thrilled to be having a baby after trying to become pregnant for several years. She and her husband experienced considerable strain in their marriage as they went through multiple unsuccessful fertility treatments. During the visit, the physician orders some blood work and performs a 1-hour glucose challenge test. The patient becomes apprehensive when this is mentioned and begins to ask questions about the purpose of the testing. When asked about her concern, she confides that the fetus is not her husband's child. Her husband is also the physician's patient, and she asks the physician not to tell him about this because "it will ruin everything." Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the physician?
A) I am obligated to tell him as he is my patient and it is in his best interest to know.
B) I will not inform your husband, but please consider telling him the truth.
C) I will not tell him, but I am obligated to inform the biological father.
D) I will not tell him, but keeping this from your husband will have many negative effects.
E) I will not tell your husband.
Correct Answer:
Verified
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