A 40-year-old woman with major depression comes to the office for follow-up. She has been taking paroxetine daily for the past year. The patient is doing fairly well but is concerned that she experiences periods of low mood on occasion. When asked how she is taking the medication, she states, "I know the bottle says once a day, but I usually take an extra pill when I feel sad and skip it if I'm having a good day." Vitals signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Explain that the medication requires consistent dosing for optimal effect
B) Inform the patient that she has been taking the medication incorrectly
C) Obtain regular paroxetine serum levels and increase frequency of office visits
D) Provide clear oral and written instructions on how to take the medication
E) Recommend that she take the medication once daily as prescribed
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q230: A 68-year-old woman comes to the office
Q231: A frail, 93-year-old woman with mild dementia
Q232: An 18-year-old woman comes to the office
Q233: A 40-year-old man comes to the office
Q234: A 52-year-old man diagnosed with advanced pancreatic
Q235: A 64-year-old man comes to the office
Q237: A 32-year-old woman comes to the office
Q238: A 66-year-old, previously healthy woman is admitted
Q239: A 48-year-old man comes to the office
Q240: A 29-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents