A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician with abdominal pain and melena. She also complains of progressive fatigue and a 5 kg (11 lb) weight loss over the last 2 months. She has a strong family history of colon, endometrial, and ovarian cancer. Colonoscopy shows a protuberant, friable mass in the ascending colon, and biopsy is diagnostic for colon adenocarcinoma. Genetic analysis confirms a mutation consistent with Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer) . Which of the following is most likely responsible for the development of colon cancer in this patient?
A) Nucleotide mismatches that escape repair
B) Covalent bonds between adjacent pyrimidines
C) Insertion of abnormal bases (eg, uracil) into DNA
D) Empty sugar-phosphate residues in the DNA molecule
E) Double-strand breaks in DNA
Correct Answer:
Verified
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