A 38-year-old man comes to the office due to pain in multiple joints. He has a 5-year history of lumbar pain and a 2-year history of bilateral knee pain. The patient works in construction and his pain is worst after a long day on his feet. He has taken ibuprofen intermittently, but the pain is no longer tolerable. The patient has a paternal aunt with osteoarthritis. Physical examination shows blue-black spots on his sclerae and diffuse darkening of the auricular helices. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's arthritis?
A) Homogentisic acid dioxygenase deficiency
B) Hyperuricemia
C) Multifactorial articular cartilage failure
D) Recent infection with Salmonella
E) Tyrosinase deficiency
Correct Answer:
Verified
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