A 37-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after developing sudden-onset right arm weakness and difficulty speaking. She has no significant medical history but takes oral contraceptives. Examination shows decreased right upper extremity strength and expressive aphasia. Cardiac auscultation is normal. MRI of the brain reveals acute infarction in the left frontal lobe. Further evaluation to determine an etiology is performed. During echocardiogram, agitated normal saline is injected into a peripheral vein and bubbles are seen passing into the left side of the heart. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the observed finding in this patient?
A) Aplasia of the atrial septum secundum
B) Failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to develop
C) Incomplete closure of the interventricular foramen
D) Incomplete fusion of atrial septum primum and secundum
E) Persistent channel between aorta and pulmonary artery
Correct Answer:
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