A newborn girl is evaluated in the nursery after an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery to a 29-year-old primigravida. The mother declined prenatal testing and ultrasound examination during the pregnancy. Her pregnancy was otherwise uneventful, and she took prenatal vitamins throughout. Examination of the neonate shows a posterior neck mass and bilateral nonpitting edema of the hands and feet. Femoral pulses are diminished. Neck ultrasound reveals a mass composed of cystic spaces separated by connective tissue. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism responsible for this patient's condition?
A) 21-hydroxylase deficiency
B) Androgen receptor mutation
C) Loss of paternal chromosome X
D) Meiotic nondisjunction of fetal chromosome 18
E) Partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5
F) Robertsonian translocation involving fetal chromosome 21
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q5: A 12-year-old girl is brought to the
Q6: A 10-year-old girl is brought to the
Q7: A 14-year-old girl is brought to the
Q8: A 67-year-old man comes to the office
Q9: A 2-month-old boy is brought to the
Q11: An 18-year-old woman comes to the office
Q12: A 40-year-old woman, gravida 5, para 0,
Q13: A 32-year-old woman comes to the office
Q14: A 20-year-old man suddenly collapses while walking
Q15: A mutation in a non-coding DNA sequence
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents