A 25-year-old nulligravid woman comes with her husband to the clinic for preconception genetic counseling. She has oculocutaneous albinism due to a homozygous OCA2 gene mutation within the region of chromosome 15q12-q13. Examination shows pale hypopigmented skin with blonde hair. Eye examination shows faint brown irises. Her husband is 26 years old and has oculocutaneous albinism due to a biallelic TYR gene mutation at position 11q14.3. Examination of the husband shows complete absence of pigmentation in the skin, hair, and irises. The couple asks about their chance of having a child with oculocutaneous albinism and are told that the chance is 0%. Which of the following is the best explanation for this?
A) Allelic heterogeneity
B) Heteroplasmy
C) Incomplete penetrance
D) Linkage disequilibrium
E) Locus heterogeneity
F) Pleiotropy
Correct Answer:
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