A 28-year-old man is evaluated for abnormal movements of the hands and face. The patient reports that he started experiencing involuntary grimacing a year ago, which has gradually worsened. He is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for major depression but has not taken any antipsychotic medications. His 52-year-old father was diagnosed with an inherited movement disorder 2 months ago. Physical examination shows normal strength and normal deep tendon reflexes. No sensory deficits are noted. Which of the following best explains the difference in disease presentation between this patient and his father?
A) Anticipation
B) Genomic imprinting
C) Incomplete penetrance
D) Microdeletion
E) Mosaicism
F) Pleiotropy
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q45: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q46: A healthy couple, who recently emigrated from
Q47: A 58-year-old man comes to the office
Q48: A 50-year-old previously healthy man is evaluated
Q49: A 26-year-old woman comes to the office
Q51: A 46-year-old woman is evaluated for a
Q52: Molecular biologists are investigating the functional significance
Q53: A study is undertaken to map the
Q54: In an experiment, cultured fibroblasts are mechanically
Q55: A 26-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents