A 19-year-old man comes to the office due to a painful subcutaneous forearm nodule. Two weeks earlier, he received a laceration on his left forearm while playing soccer and had sutures placed. The lesion is biopsied, and results are shown in the image below:
Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?
A) Excess granulation tissue formation
B) Malignant transformation
C) Normal wound remodeling
D) Persistent neutrophil activity
E) Reaction to a foreign body
Correct Answer:
Verified
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