A 34-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office due to vulvar itching and vaginal discharge. She has no other concerns. The patient is sexually active with her fiancé and takes oral contraceptives daily. She does not use barrier contraception. She took antibiotics 2 weeks ago for sinusitis but has no other medical problems. Pelvic examination shows an erythematous vulva and a thick white discharge that adheres to the vaginal wall. The rest of the physical examination is normal. Microscopic examination reveals budding cells. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of her current condition?
A) Decreased glycogen concentration in the vaginal epithelium
B) Decreased number of gram-positive bacteria in the vagina
C) Decreased thickness of the vaginal epithelium
D) Increased alkaline secretions by the cervical mucosa
E) Viral DNA incorporation into lower genital epithelia
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q16: A 3-year-old boy is brought to the
Q17: A 58-year-old asymptomatic woman comes to the
Q18: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Q19: A 64-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q20: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Q22: A 36-year-old immigrant from Peru comes to
Q23: A 32-year-old man is being evaluated due
Q24: A 46-year-old homeless man comes to the
Q25: A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q26: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents