A 24-year-old woman comes to the office due to 2 days of burning during urination and increased urinary frequency and urgency. The patient has had no fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, flank pain, or vaginal discharge, but reports darkening of the urine. She has no other medical conditions and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. The patient is sexually active with her boyfriend and takes an oral contraceptive for birth control. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows mild suprapubic tenderness. There is no costovertebral angle tenderness. Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?
A) Candida albicans
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Escherichia coli
D) Gardnerella vaginalis
E) Group B streptococcus
F) Klebsiella pneumoniae
G) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
H) Proteus mirabilis
I) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
J) Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q35: A 65-year-old man comes to the office
Q36: A 20-year-old woman comes to the office
Q37: A 24-year-old woman comes to the office
Q38: A 24-year-old woman comes to the office
Q39: An 8-year-old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Q41: A 23-year-old man comes to the physician
Q42: A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q43: A 65-year-old man comes to the office
Q44: A 4-year-old, previously healthy boy is brought
Q45: A 64-year-old man comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents