A 35-year-old man comes to the office due to 3 months of progressive swelling under his left jaw. The swelling spontaneously opened and drained pus a month ago but has not improved or resolved. The patient has no medical conditions other than dental caries; he had a tooth extracted prior to symptom onset. Physical examination shows an indurated, nontender mass in the left submandibular area with a small opening on the overlying skin. Gentle pressure on the mass yields thick pus containing sand/grain-like particles. The microbial pathogen with which of the following characteristics is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A) Bipolar-staining, gram-negative bacilli
B) Coagulase-producing, gram-positive cocci
C) Conidia-forming, dimorphic fungus
D) Filamentous, branching, gram-positive bacilli
E) Oxidase-positive, gram-negative bacilli
Correct Answer:
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