A 24-year-old woman comes to the office due to lower abdominal pain and malodorous vaginal discharge. The patient has had increasing vaginal discharge for the past 3 weeks and increasing lower abdominal pain for the last few days. She has no chronic medical conditions or medication allergies. The patient is sexually active and uses a copper-containing intrauterine device for contraception. Temperature is 38.3 C (100.9 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. The lower abdomen is tender to palpation with no rebound or guarding. On pelvic examination, the strings of the intrauterine device are seen, and cervical motion tenderness and mucopurulent cervical discharge are present. Culture of the discharge shows thin, elongated, gram-positive bacilli in an acute-angle branching pattern. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A) Fluconazole
B) Metronidazole
C) Nitrofurantoin
D) Penicillin
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
Verified
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