A 34-year-old man comes to the physician due to fever, myalgias, malaise, and progressive fatigue over a 2-week period. He has not experienced any sore throat. He recently received a blood transfusion while hospitalized for a bleeding duodenal ulcer. Physical examination shows mild splenomegaly. There is no lymphadenopathy and no jaundice. Lymphocytosis is identified in the peripheral blood with 30% atypical lymphocytes. The patient's serum fails to agglutinate horse erythrocytes. The agglutination test is repeated a week later and, again, no agglutination is noted. HIV testing is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A) Coxsackievirus A
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Hepatitis C virus
E) JC virus
F) Parvovirus B19
Correct Answer:
Verified
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