A 38-year-old man comes to the office due to worsening fever, chills, malaise, cough, and shortness of breath. The patient has no prior medical conditions and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. He has not traveled recently or been exposed to sick contacts. Temperature is 39.4 C (103 F) . There is dullness to percussion and crackles over the right lung. Leukocyte count is elevated, and chest x-ray reveals a right lung infiltrate. The underlying immune response to this patient's infection largely involves T helper (Th1) cells, interferon-gamma, and interleukin-2. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen responsible for this patient's pneumonia?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Legionella pneumophila
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer:
Verified
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