A 21-year-old man comes to the office due to several days of intense pruritus of the inguinal-genital area. He has had no fever, dysuria, or skin rash. He is not using any new soaps, detergents, or lotions. The patient has had 3 sexual partners in the past year. He was treated for chlamydial urethritis 6 months ago and since then has been using condoms consistently. Vital signs are within normal limits. Genitourinary examination shows no urethral discharge, penile lesions, or inguinal lymphadenopathy. There are skin excoriation marks in the pubic area and other findings as shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient's condition?
A) Oral acyclovir
B) Oral doxycycline
C) Oral fluconazole
D) Topical imiquimod
E) Topical permethrin
F) Topical triamcinolone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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