Solved

A 42-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to 2

Question 184

Multiple Choice

A 42-year-old man comes to the office due to 2 weeks of progressive fever, chills, abdominal discomfort, and loose stools, which began during a trip to Southeast Asia.  He received no pre-travel vaccinations and did not strictly follow food and water safety precautions during the trip.  The patient has no chronic medical conditions but has experienced a prior episode of Salmonella enteritidis gastroenteritis, which resolved with symptomatic care.  Temperature is 39.4 C (103 F) , blood pressure is 110/64 mm Hg, pulse is 62/min, and respirations are 18/min.  Physical examination reveals a faint macular rash on the trunk.  There is mild tenderness on palpation of lower abdominal quadrants with no guarding or rebound tenderness.  Blood culture grows non-lactose fermenting gram-negative rods.  Which of the following best explains the prolonged and severe disease course from this pathogen compared to the patient's previous bacterial infection?


A) Contact-dependent host cytotoxicity
B) Cross-reacting antibody formation
C) Extensive intra-phagocytic multiplication
D) Potent exotoxin production
E) Villus epithelial cell destruction

Correct Answer:

verifed

Verified

Unlock this answer now
Get Access to more Verified Answers free of charge

Related Questions

Unlock this Answer For Free Now!

View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions

qr-code

Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks

upload documents

Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents