A 34-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to 2 weeks of slowly progressive global headache, malaise, and fevers. He has also had unintentional weight loss over the past several months. The patient has a history of injection drug use and was diagnosed with HIV 3 years ago. He has not been compliant with antiretroviral therapy. Temperature is 38.3 C (100.9 F) . Examination shows white patches on the oropharyngeal mucosa and mild generalized lymphadenopathy. Brain imaging reveals no intracranial masses. India ink staining of cerebrospinal fluid demonstrates spherical yeast forms with thick capsules. Which of the following is the most likely site of primary infection in this patient?
A) Intestine
B) Lungs
C) Nasopharynx
D) Oral cavity
E) Skin
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q262: A 28-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q263: A 44-year-old man is brought to the
Q264: The influenza A virus uses a sialic
Q265: A 16-year-old girl is brought to the
Q266: A 38-year-old man is brought to the
Q268: A pharmaceutical researcher is developing a novel
Q269: A virologist is researching acyclovir-resistant herpes simplex
Q270: A 9-year-old girl is brought to the
Q271: A 41-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q272: A 22-year-old woman is brought to the
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents