A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to 2 days of headache, nausea, and photophobia. She has had migraines since her early 20s but has had more frequent episodes over the last few years. The current headache is more severe than usual, and ibuprofen did not relieve the pain. A flulike illness preceded the symptoms. Temperature is 38.3 C (100.9 F) , blood pressure is 144/86 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. The patient appears lethargic. Cranial nerves, sensation, and motor functions are normal. She reports neck pain when instructed to touch the chest with her chin. No skin rash is present. Noncontrast CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 100% oxygen inhalation
B) Lumbar puncture
C) Metoclopramide
D) MRI of the brain
E) Sumatriptan
F) Topiramate
Correct Answer:
Verified
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