A 24-year-old man comes to the urgent care clinic due to painful swelling in his left groin. The patient noticed the swelling 2 days ago, and it has progressively become more tender and painful. He has no chronic medical conditions, but he recently sustained a puncture wound to the sole of his left foot. Physical examination shows an enlarged, tender, and nonfluctuant left inguinal lymph node with erythematous overlying skin. There is a small puncture wound on the sole of the left foot, which expresses pus upon mild pressure. Which of the following histologic findings is most likely responsible for this patient's groin mass?
A) Atypical B-cell proliferation
B) Diffuse granulomatous reaction
C) Extensive lymph node necrosis
D) Marked paracortical cell expansion
E) Formation of multiple germinal centers
Correct Answer:
Verified
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