A 64-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to flank discomfort and red urine. He has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Three months ago, the patient had an ischemic stroke and now has mild, residual, right-sided weakness. Serum creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL, and serum lactate dehydrogenase is elevated. Urine microscopy shows many red blood cells. The findings of a CT scan of the abdomen with contrast are shown in the image below:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Deep venous thrombosis of the lower extremities
C) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
D) Hypersensitivity interstitial nephritis
E) Pulmonary hypertension
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q107: A 38-year-old woman suddenly collapses at home
Q108: A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q109: A 62-year-old, obese woman is brought to
Q110: A 25-year-old woman comes to the office
Q111: A 33-year-old, previously healthy woman comes to
Q113: A 35-year-old primigravid woman comes to the
Q114: A 1-week-old boy is brought to the
Q115: A 54-year-old man comes to the office
Q116: A 67-year-old man is admitted to the
Q117: A 64-year-old man comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents