A 36-year-old man comes to the office due to a 2-month history of a pruritic rash over the elbows and knees. The patient has been using skin emollients, but the lesions have not improved. He also has a prolonged history of episodic abdominal discomfort, flatulence, and voluminous greasy stools. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Skin examination shows a papulovesicular skin rash in groups with erosion and excoriations. Which of the following is most likely to be seen in this patient?
A) Crypt abscesses in colonic mucosa
B) IgG-mediated skin disruption
C) Increased intestinal intraepithelial lymphocytes
D) Increased urinary porphyrins
E) Insulin resistance
Correct Answer:
Verified
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