An 8-year-old boy is brought to the office due to a lower extremity skin rash for the past 3 days. The rash began as tender papules that quickly progressed to form vesicles and flaccid bullae that rupture easily. The patient has no mucosal lesions or other rashes and has never had similar symptoms before. He is up to date with recommended vaccinations and takes no medications. Skin examination findings are shown below.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's skin findings?
A) Autoantibodies targeted against hemidesmosomes
B) Autoantibody-mediated epidermal cell separation
C) Bacterial toxin-induced desmoglein 1 cleavage
D) Defective epidermal barrier and T-cell dysregulation
E) Inflammatory response to viral lytic infection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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