A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to bloody bowel movements. One hour ago, the patient had a sudden urge to defecate and passed a large amount of bright red blood mixed with stool. Several minutes later, she had another episode with a small amount of blood. The patient reports no nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, or fever and never had such symptoms before. She is hospitalized but has no further bleeding. Physical examination, including a digital rectal examination, is unremarkable. A colonoscopy performed after bowel preparation reveals the findings in the exhibit.
There are no other abnormalities. Which of following is the most likely source of this patient's bleeding?
A) Abnormal arteriovenous channel
B) Diffusely eroded mucosal surface
C) Dilated and tortuous venous plexus
D) Disruption of vasa recta
E) Sloughed off polypoidal mass
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q275: A 1-month-old boy is brought to the
Q276: A 73-year-old woman is brought to the
Q277: A 26-year-old woman is evaluated for intermittent
Q278: A 44-year-old woman comes to the office
Q279: A 10-year-old boy is brought to the
Q281: A 28-year-old woman at 32 weeks gestation
Q282: A 59-year-old man is evaluated in the
Q283: A 70-year-old man comes to the office
Q284: A 21-year-old man comes to the office
Q285: A 34-year-old man comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents