A 73-year-old man comes to the clinic with epigastric pain that starts 30-40 minutes after meals and does not respond to antacids. The pain is non-radiating and is graded 6/10 in intensity. The patient has lost more than 4.5 kg (10 lb) over the last few months, which he attributes to eating less due to his fear of the pain. He has no vomiting, diarrhea, or urinary symptoms. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, coronary artery bypass grafting, and right-sided carotid endarterectomy. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 32 years. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy shows no abnormalities. The underlying pathophysiology of this patient's disease process is most similar to which of the following conditions?
A) Aortic dissection
B) Diffuse esophageal spasm
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Pulmonary embolism
E) Stable angina
Correct Answer:
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