A 34-year-old man comes to the office due to upper abdominal pain. The patient has vague discomfort that happens mostly in the afternoon and at night and is partially relieved by food. He sometimes feels nauseated. He has had no vomiting, black or bloody stools, or weight loss. The patient takes no prescription or over-the-counter medications. Family history is negative for cancer. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals a small ulcer with a clean base in the duodenal bulb. Biopsy of which of the following sites is most likely to demonstrate the infectious agent responsible for this patient's current condition?
A) Gastric antrum
B) Gastric body
C) Gastric fundus
D) Lower duodenum
E) Upper duodenum
Correct Answer:
Verified
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