A 46-year-old man comes to the office due to abdominal discomfort and diarrhea. The symptoms began 6 months ago, and he has now developed significant weight loss. The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. Intestinal biopsy is performed, and a periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stained section is shown in the image below:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Chronic bacterial infection
B) Immune-mediated gluten sensitivity
C) Impaired lipoprotein formation
D) Lactase deficiency
E) Viral infection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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