A 32-year-old African American male is diagnosed with acute prostatitis. He has no significant past medical history. He begins treatment with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, but subsequently develops dark urine and anemia with a high reticulocyte count. Which of the following is the best explanation for the observed findings?
A) Antibody-mediated erythrocyte destruction
B) Hereditary erythrocyte membrane defect
C) Hereditary erythrocyte enzyme deficiency
D) Hemoglobin structure abnormality
E) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Correct Answer:
Verified
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