A 22-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to a nosebleed. She had a similar episode yesterday, but the bleeding stopped with prolonged local pressure. On review of systems, the patient has also had easy bruising for the past several months. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. On physical examination, her heart and lungs appear normal. The liver span is 8 cm and the spleen is not palpable. There are scattered ecchymoses over her arms and legs. Laboratory results are as follows:
HIV and hepatitis C tests are negative. Which of the following is the most likely primary mechanism causing this patient's condition?
A) Bone marrow aplasia
B) Bone marrow infiltration by malignant cells
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D) Immune destruction of platelets
E) Platelet sequestration
F) von Willebrand disease
Correct Answer:
Verified
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