A 13-year-old boy is brought to the office for a new patient visit. The patient recently immigrated to the United States with his family. He has no history of significant illness, trauma, or surgery. Physical examination shows Tanner stage IV genitalia but an empty right scrotal sac. A round mass can be palpated in the right inguinal canal. Biopsy of the mass shows marked fibrotic changes with prominent Leydig cells and hypoplastic Sertoli cells. The patient's parents are advised that the mass should be removed. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the need for surgery in this patient?
A) Maintain adequate function of the contralateral organ
B) Preserve virilization
C) Prevent recurrent infections
D) Reduce the risk of future infertility
E) Reduce the risk of malignancy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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