A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic due to a 2-month history of progressive left arm clumsiness and weakness. The patient initially attributed his symptoms to a left rotator cuff injury he sustained several years ago; however, he has recently developed problems with his gait. The patient's symptoms have interfered with daily activities such as bathing and dressing. He has had no recent injury, headaches, or bowel/bladder symptoms. On physical examination, there is reduced muscle strength in the left upper extremity. Further evaluation with brain MRI reveals a lesion involving the corticospinal tract. Which of the following additional signs is most likely to been seen in this patient?
A) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
B) Muscle atrophy
C) Muscle fasciculation
D) Muscle hypotonia
E) Resting tremor
F) Sensory loss in the affected area
Correct Answer:
Verified
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