A 21-year-old woman comes to the office due to a long history of episodic headaches, dizziness, and gait imbalance. The headaches are located in the occipital region, are characterized as dull, and last for several hours. Physical examination reveals gait ataxia but no focal weakness or sensory loss. MRI of the brain shows low-lying cerebellar tonsils extending below the plane of the foramen magnum into the vertebral canal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A) Autoimmune disease
B) Congenital malformation
C) Germline mutation
D) Neoplastic disease
E) Sequelae of prior trauma
F) Vascular disease
Correct Answer:
Verified
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