A 21-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to 1 day of left flank pain and gross hematuria. He reports passage of small blood clots in urine but has had no dysuria or similar symptoms in the past. The patient has no other medical problems and does not take any medications. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. His younger sister has sickle cell disease. His temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 126/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. Abdominal and genitourinary examination is unremarkable. There is no costovertebral angle tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's hematuria?
A) Acute pyelonephritis
B) Amyloidosis
C) Fanconi syndrome
D) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
E) Hypersensitivity interstitial nephritis
F) Ischemic tubular necrosis
G) Lead nephropathy
H) Papillary necrosis
I) Renal artery stenosis
J) Urate nephropathy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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