A 1-year-old boy is brought to the office for a health maintenance visit. He has had no significant health issues and is growing well. The patient is up to date with recommended vaccinations and has had no prior vaccine-related adverse events. He has no known allergies. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The patient receives the first dose of the subcutaneous measles-mumps-rubella vaccine. The next day, his mother calls the office because the patient has a temperature of 38 C (100.4 F) and has been irritable since the vaccination. The immunization site is mildly red, swollen, and tender; there is no other skin rash. Which of the following cells and effector mechanisms is most likely involved in pathogenesis of this patient's current condition?
A) CD4+ T cells and CD40 ligand
B) CD8+ T cells and perforins
C) Dendritic cells and MHC II
D) Macrophages and IL-6
E) Plasma cells and IgM
Correct Answer:
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