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A 40-Year-Old Woman Is Hospitalized Due to a Femoral Neck

Question 156

Multiple Choice

A 40-year-old woman is hospitalized due to a femoral neck fracture that occurred when she slipped while stepping out of the bathtub.  The patient was diagnosed with a prolactinoma 3 years ago during evaluation of amenorrhea, but she refused medical or surgical treatments.  The tumor is being monitored closely and has not increased in size or caused any visual symptoms.  The patient has no other medical problems, takes no medications, and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  She has 3 healthy children and no significant family history.  The underlying mechanism for this patient's susceptibility to fracture is most likely to cause which of the following additional manifestations?


A) Hand tremors
B) Kidney stones
C) Stomach ulcers
D) Swallowing difficulty
E) Vaginal dryness

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