A 55-year-old woman comes to the office due to vaginal bleeding. The patient underwent menopause at age 49 but has had intermittent, light vaginal bleeding for the last 6 months. She has no pelvic pain and otherwise feels well. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is managed with diet and exercise. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 38 kg/m2. Speculum examination shows dark red blood at the cervical os. On bimanual examination, the uterus is small and nontender and there are no palpable adnexal masses. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Autonomous pituitary secretion of prolactin
B) Ectopic implantation of endometrial glands and stroma
C) Elevated sex-hormone binding globulin levels
D) Increased peripheral aromatization of androgens
E) Suppression of hypothalamic GnRH secretion
Correct Answer:
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