A 62-year-old woman comes to the office for diarrhea. She has had 4 or 5 watery, brown stools every day for the past 6 months. Although most episodes occur during the day, she wakes up at least once a night to defecate. There is no associated hematochezia, melena, vomiting, or unexpected weight loss. Medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. She takes lisinopril, insulin, and metformin. She has no recent travel or new medications. Family history is unremarkable. She does not drink alcohol. Temperature is 37.4 C (99.3 F) , blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. The abdomen is nontender and nondistended. Complete blood count, serum chemistries, and stool studies are normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's diarrhea?
A) Decreased bacterial growth in the colon
B) Disaccharidase deficiency
C) Disordered motility of the small bowel and colon
D) Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
E) Transmural intestinal inflammation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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